Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 13:22
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Is the 4B movement's aggressiveness against men for seeing women as mantelpieces valid?
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Should women be allowed in “combat roles” within the military?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Belmont Stakes 2025: Win, place, show, exacta, trifecta and superfecta picks - SportsLine
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.